this post was submitted on 11 Nov 2023
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Self defense? Only on the battlefield? Only to achieve a β€˜noble’ end?

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[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

I don't believe that is what you meant, but @dewritoninja has a point: on your definition, where is the acceptable limit for the violence-to-supress-violence?

PS: "An eye for an eye" (law of exact retaliation) was written to suppress escalation of violence. And usually people consider even that excessive.

[–] [email protected] 7 points 1 year ago (1 children)

My point is that it's an absurd argument.

Let's talk real world, the atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki. Do you think a reasonable argument can be made that those bombings made sense? If not, what about in 1945?

I'm not asking you to agree, just to understand the argument. It's a discussion worth having, even if you disagree with the answer.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 year ago

I don't think it made sense, even at that time. Those cities were mainly built with wood, and US used a lot of fire against Japan.

The use of nuclear power against Japan was more like a test and a message, it was not needed to win the war. (At least this is what I remember from this documentary )