this post was submitted on 21 May 2024
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and your source measured the effects of one single area that cathartic theory is supposed to apply to, not all of them.
your source does in no way support the claim that the observed effects apply to anything other than aggressive behavior.
i understand that the theory supposedly applies to other areas as well, but as you so helpfully pointed out: the theory doesn't seem to hold up.
so either A: the theory is wrong, and so the association between aggression and sexuality needs to be called into question also;
or B: the theory isn't wrong after all.
you are now claiming that the theory is wrong, but at the same time, the theory is totally correct! (when it's convenient to you, that is)
so which is it now? is the theory correct? then your source must be ~~wrong~~ irrelevant.
or is the theory wrong? then the claim of a link between sexuality and aggression is also without support, until you provide a source for that claim.
you can't have it both ways, but you're sure trying to.
My original claim was that cathartic theory in and of itself is not founded on evidence based research.
When did I claim it was ever correct?
I think you are misconstruing my original claim with the claims made by the cathartic theory itself.
I don't claim that cathartic theory is beneficial in any way, you are the one claiming that Cathartic theory is correct for sexual aggression, but not for violence.
Do you have a source that claims cathartic theory is beneficial for satiation deviant sexual impulses?
You are wanting me to provide an evidence based claim between the two when I've already said the overarching theory is not based on evidence?
The primary principle to establish is the theory of cathartic relief, not wether it works for one emotion or the other. You have not provided any evidence to support that claim, I have provided evidence that disputes it.