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Trig (lemmy.world)

submitted 10 months ago by [email protected] to c/[email protected]

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[–] [email protected] 1 points 10 months ago* (last edited 10 months ago) (1 children)

You don't have to, but it seems perfectly easy since you don't have to write anything down to solve it. c*sin(arctan(b/a)) gives b, and c*cos(arctan(b/a)) gives a. I'm not disputing that you can do it without, but I don't think it's necessarily any quicker or easier.

[–] [email protected] 2 points 10 months ago

If it works it works. I just never would have thought to do it that way.