this post was submitted on 02 Sep 2023
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[–] [email protected] 4 points 1 year ago (1 children)
[–] [email protected] 15 points 1 year ago (1 children)

What is the moral justification for your answer?

[–] [email protected] 4 points 1 year ago (1 children)

It's actually axiomatic. I can't really prove or justify why one should be good or bad, or why they should be good or bad to one another. But that good is good and to be strived for is the staring point of the philosophy.

[–] [email protected] 15 points 1 year ago (1 children)

This is an appeal to the one true scotsman fallacy

[–] [email protected] 3 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Look up axioms. You'll see they are the staring points of logical arguments.

[–] [email protected] 11 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Why do you get to define axioms to exclude my definition?

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 year ago (1 children)

I don't define axioms. It is the general definition commonly used, as recorded (but not decided) by the dictionary. Do you in fact have a different definition?

[–] [email protected] 11 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Words have the meaning we give them, not always just the original meaning

[–] [email protected] 2 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Exactly. And the general meaning is the one I just gave.

[–] [email protected] 12 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago) (1 children)

But general definition is not stable it changes. You're just saying this in a way to negate my definition. Why do you get to define it?

[–] [email protected] 0 points 1 year ago (1 children)

The majority/community defines it has hasn't changed it yet.

[–] [email protected] 10 points 1 year ago (1 children)

So you're trying to say words have actual meanings?

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

They have the actual meaning that the majority or community gives them. But that isn't necessarily static. But you've shown no evidence that it's changed in this case. That's what I've always been saying.

[–] [email protected] 8 points 1 year ago (1 children)

So words have settled meanings when you say they do?

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

What do you mean settled? Do words meaning change? Absolutely. Quick examples from Google are awesome, egregious, awful, terrific, smeart->smart, nice, wicked, presently, etc

[–] [email protected] 9 points 1 year ago (1 children)

I mean you feel confindent saying that a word has a meaning that is agreed upon

[–] [email protected] 1 points 1 year ago (1 children)

Yes? Sometimes multiple in the case of homophones.

[–] [email protected] 9 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

So if someone told you that you were using a word or words incorrectly, because the agreed upon usage of that term was decided, you would accept it and wouldn't pedantically argue that point instead?