If, as you say,
I’m unconcerned with how it was intended since that’s totally irrelevant to what it actually is.
Then why did you waste time describing what you believed was the intention behind it earlier when you said,
I think of it as a rhetorical flourish to emphasize the importance they placed on representing states rather than people.
Regardless, the other point that I made that you haven't addressed still stands: they put that prohibition against banning the slave trade in there for a reason, and that reason was presumably not "as a rhetorical flourish", so either the people who insisted that it be present were horribly incompetent at writing legal language that would preserve their own interests, or your personal opinion as to how Constitutional law works in this case is missing something important.
So just to be clear: you think that this particular language was badly written because it is so easily bypassed?