this post was submitted on 08 Sep 2024
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My understanding is that after the war, the US agreed to defend Japan. And Japan is still allowed to defend itself against others too. I don't understand how what you're saying is related at all.
The US occupied Japan. The agreement wasn't exactly one made by equals. It was the same kind of deal as the Marshall Plan.
Which parts of what I said don't seem related?
Only until 1952. Everything you're saying sounds like a strawman argument.
Are you under the impression that we've left Japan?
De jure, yes. But also what is your point? Do you think this contradicts anything I said?
A straw man argument is where you pretend someone else is making an argument that they aren't because it is rhetorically easier to address.
At which point have I done that even once?